While Pilate was sitting on the judge's seat, his wife sent him this message: "Don't have anything to do with that innocent man, for I have suffered a great deal today in a dream because of him."Since we just concluded Holy Week and have had focus on the events surrounding the Crucifixion and Resurrection, something new occurred to me. Why did Pilate's wife have her dream? I have always assumed that the dream came from God, but of the possible reasons that I can think of for the dream the most likely scenario in my opinion is the one in which it came from Satan.
- Matthew 27:19
Possibility #1: God was removing Pilate's excuse for condemning Christ
God knew that what was prophesied would come true, and that Pilate would condemn Christ to crucifixion. It is conceivable that he was given every opportunity to not condemn Christ, even though he was always destined to make the choice that he made, so that he would have no excuse on the day of judgment.
Possibility #2: God was providing validation for Christ to those who would hear of the dream later
It could be argued that if news of the dream and Pilate's and his wife's conversation got out that it could serve as validation for Christ once news started circulating about the empty tomb. This could be a counter-point to the assertion that the disciples knocked out trained Roman guards, rolled a boulder from away from the mouth of the tomb, stole Christ's body, and disposed of it without witnesses.
Possibility #3: Satan was using this as a last-ditch effort to stop the proceedings that would end with Christ justifying our sins.
Think about it a moment. In the spiritual realm who really would want the Crucifixion to be stopped? God purposefully pushed the plan forward as this was His avenue to offer salvation to an undeserving race. God was not going to keep the Crucifixion from occurring.
Satan, however, appears in the Gospels to operate under the assumption that he can change God's plan. He throws temptations at Christ as if that is something he has a chance of being successful at (Matthew 4:1-11). His demons attempted to out Jesus as the Christ before the appointed time (Luke 4:41). He is even the direct source of Peter's famous rejection of Christ (Luke 22:31-32). Why wouldn't Satan use whatever tools were at his disposal, minimal as they may have been, in an attempt to block the events that would cause Christ to pay the price for our sin?
1 comment:
Oddly enough I wrote myself a note about this passage but another verse. When Jesus says to Pilate, you only have power because it was given from above. Many take this as the predestined sort of control over the world - but I also see that Christ had to lay down his glory to become human thus the authority was given by Christ's laying down. The other thought that came to mind was that from above could also refer to the political food chain and that if Pilate didn't do it someone would. I don't think God had only one way to get his plan followed and I think at this point Satan may have thought his plan was working. Again the foolish things to confound the wise idea. No one things of violent death as a saving mechanism. The dream could have been partly human and partly spiritual - I'm sure they were all full of talk of Christ due to the political situation so it is in her head already. I need to ponder this more.
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